từ đề bài ta có bất đẳng thức cần chứng minh tương đương: 

\(3+\dfrac{z}{x+y}+\dfrac{x}{y+z}+\dfrac{y}{x+z}\le\dfrac{1}{4}\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right)+\dfrac{9}{4}\)

<=>\(\dfrac{3}{4}+\dfrac{z}{x+y}+\dfrac{x}{y+z}+\dfrac{y}{x+z}\le\dfrac{1}{4}\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right)\)

ta có \(\dfrac{3}{4}+\dfrac{z}{x+y}+\dfrac{x}{y+z}+\dfrac{y}{x+z}\le\dfrac{3}{4}+\dfrac{z+y}{4x}+\dfrac{x+z}{4y}+\dfrac{x+y}{4z}=\dfrac{3}{4}+\dfrac{1}{4}\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right)-\dfrac{3}{4}=\dfrac{1}{4}\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right)\left(đpcm\right)\)Dấu "=" xảy ra khi x=y=z=\(\dfrac{1}{3}\)

Ta có bất đẳng thức AM-GM dạng phân thức sau: 

\(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}\ge\dfrac{4}{a+b}\Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{a+b}\le\dfrac{1}{4}(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b})\)

Dấu ''='' xảy ra khi và chỉ khi a=b

Quay lại bài toán: Áp dụng bđt trên, ta có:

\(\dfrac{1}{2x+y+z}=\dfrac{1}{(x+y)+(x+z)}\le\dfrac{1}{4}(\dfrac{1}{x+y}+\dfrac{1}{x+z})\\ \le\dfrac{1}{16}(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{z})=\dfrac{1}{16}(\dfrac{2}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z})\)

Tương tự:

 \(\dfrac{1}{x+2y+z}\le\dfrac{1}{16}(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{2}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z})\); \(\dfrac{1}{x+y+2z}\le\dfrac{1}{16}(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{2}{z})\)

Cộng 3 phân thức lại, ta có:

\(\dfrac{1}{2x+y+z}+\dfrac{1}{x+2y+z}+\dfrac{1}{x+y+2z}\le\dfrac{1}{4}(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z})=\dfrac{1}{4}.4=1\)

Dấu ''='' xảy ra khi và chỉ khi: \(x=y=z=\dfrac{3}{4}\)

Lời giải:
Nếu $x+y+z=0$ thì:

$\frac{x+y-z}{z}=\frac{-z-z}{z}=-2$

$\frac{y+z-x}{x}=\frac{-x-x}{x}=-2$

$\frac{z+x-y}{y}=\frac{-y-y}{y}=-2$ 

(thỏa mãn đkđb)

Khi đó:

$P=(1+\frac{x}{y})(1+\frac{y}{z})(1+\frac{z}{x})=\frac{(x+y)(y+z)(z+x)}{xyz}$

$=\frac{(-z)(-x)(-y)}{xyz}=\frac{-xyz}{xyz}=-1$

Nếu $x+y+z\neq 0$

Áp dụng TCDTSBN:

$\frac{x+y-z}{z}=\frac{y+z-x}{x}=\frac{z+x-y}{y}=\frac{x+y-z+y+z-x+z+x-y}{z+x+y}=\frac{x+y+z}{x+y+z}=1$

$\Rightarrow x+y=2z; y+z=2x, z+x=2y$. Khi đó:

$P=\frac{(x+y)(y+z)(z+x)}{xyz}=\frac{2z.2x.2y}{xyz}=8$

Có VT = \(\sqrt{\dfrac{1}{x^2}+\dfrac{1}{y^2}+\dfrac{1}{z^2}}=\sqrt{\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right)^2-\dfrac{2}{xy}-\dfrac{2}{yz}-\dfrac{2}{zx}}\)

\(=\sqrt{\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right)^2-\dfrac{2}{xyz}\left(x+y+z\right)}\) 

\(=\sqrt{\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right)^2}=\left|\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right|=VP\) (Vì x + y + z = 0) 

2: Ta có: \(\dfrac{a^2}{b+c}+\dfrac{b^2}{c+a}+\dfrac{c^2}{a+b}=\dfrac{a\left(a+b+c\right)}{b+c}+\dfrac{b\left(a+b+c\right)}{c+a}+\dfrac{c\left(a+b+c\right)}{a+b}-a-b-c=\left(a+b+c\right)\left(\dfrac{a}{b+c}+\dfrac{b}{c+a}+\dfrac{c}{a+b}\right)=a+b+c-a-b-c=0\)

1: Sửa đề: Cho \(x,y,z\ne0\) và \(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{2}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}=\dfrac{2}{2x+y+2z}\).

CM:....

Đặt 2x = x', 2z = z'.

Ta có: \(\dfrac{2}{x'}+\dfrac{2}{y}+\dfrac{2}{z'}=\dfrac{2}{x'+y+z'}\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{1}{x'}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z'}=\dfrac{1}{x'+y+z'}\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{1}{x'}-\dfrac{1}{x'+y+z'}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z'}=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{y+z'}{x'\left(x'+y+z'\right)}+\dfrac{y+z'}{yz'}=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{\left(y+z'\right)\left(yz'+x'^2+x'y+x'z'\right)}{x'yz'\left(x'+y+z'\right)}=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{\left(x'+y\right)\left(y+z'\right)\left(z'+x'\right)}{x'yz'\left(x'+y+z'\right)}=0\Leftrightarrow\left(2x+y\right)\left(y+2z\right)\left(2z+2x\right)=0\Leftrightarrow\left(2x+y\right)\left(y+2z\right)\left(z+x\right)=0\left(đpcm\right)\)

\(x+y+z=xyz\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{1}{xy}+\dfrac{1}{yz}+\dfrac{1}{zx}=1\)

\(\dfrac{1}{x^2}+\dfrac{1}{y^2}+\dfrac{1}{z^2}=\left(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\right)^2-2\left(\dfrac{1}{xy}+\dfrac{1}{yz}+\dfrac{1}{zx}\right)=2^2-2.1=2\) (đpcm)

 Trước hết, ta đi chứng minh một bổ đề sau: Nếu \(a+b+c=0\) thì \(a^3+b^3+c^3=3abc\). Thật vậy, ta phân tích 

 \(P=a^3+b^3+c^3-3abc\)

\(P=\left(a+b\right)^3+c^3-3ab\left(a+b\right)-3abc\)

\(P=\left(a+b+c\right)\left[\left(a+b\right)^2+\left(a+b\right)c+c^2\right]-3ab\left(a+b+c\right)\)

\(P=\left(a+b+c\right)\left(a^2+b^2+c^2-ab-bc-ca\right)\).

Hiển nhiên nếu \(a+b+c=0\) thì \(P=0\) hay \(a^3+b^3+c^3=3abc\), bổ đề được chứng minh.

Do \(\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}=0\) nên áp dụng bổ đề, ta được \(\dfrac{1}{x^3}+\dfrac{1}{y^3}+\dfrac{1}{z^3}=\dfrac{3}{xyz}\).

Vì vậy \(\dfrac{yz}{x^2}+\dfrac{zx}{y^2}+\dfrac{xy}{z^2}=\dfrac{xyz}{x^3}+\dfrac{xyz}{y^3}+\dfrac{xyz}{z^3}\) \(=xyz\left(\dfrac{1}{x^3}+\dfrac{1}{y^3}+\dfrac{1}{z^3}\right)\) \(=xyz.\dfrac{3}{xyz}=3\). Ta có đpcm

Chào bạn

bạn nhân chéo lên rồi tách ra thì bạn sẽ có

1/x+1/y+1/z=1/x+y+z tương đương với (x+y)(y+z)(x+z)=0

Đến đây thì dễ rồi