Ta có: \(A=\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{4^2}+\frac{1}{6^2}+\frac{1}{8^2}+\frac{1}{10^2}+\frac{1}{12^2}+\frac{1}{14^2}\)

              \(=\frac{1}{2^2}\left(1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+\frac{1}{4^2}+\frac{1}{5^2}+\frac{1}{6^2}+\frac{1}{7^2}\right)\)  

            \(< \frac{1}{2^2}\left(1+\frac{1}{1.2}+\frac{1}{2.3}+\frac{1}{3.4}+\frac{1}{4.5}+\frac{1}{5.6}+\frac{1}{6.7}\right)\)  

            \(=\frac{1}{2^2}\left(1+1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{6}-\frac{1}{7}\right)\)

             \(=\frac{1}{2^2}\left(2-\frac{1}{7}\right)=\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{28}< \frac{1}{2}\)

 Vậy   \(A< \frac{1}{2}\).

Ta có:\(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{31}+\frac{1}{35}+\frac{1}{37}+\frac{1}{47}+\frac{1}{53}+\frac{1}{61}\)

\(=\frac{1}{3}+\left(\frac{1}{31}+\frac{1}{35}+\frac{1}{37}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{47}+\frac{1}{53}+\frac{1}{61}\right)\)\(< \frac{1}{3}+\left(\frac{1}{30}+\frac{1}{30}+\frac{1}{30}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{45}+\frac{1}{45}+\frac{1}{45}\right)\)\(=\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{10}+\frac{1}{15}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Vậy ............

Ta có: 1/3 + 1/31 + 1/35 + 1/37 + 1/47 + 1/53 + 1/61 < 1/3 + 3/31 + 3/47 < 1/3 + 3/30 + 3/45

= 1/3 + 1/10 + 1/15 = 1/3 + (1/30) * (3+2) = 1/3 + (1/0) * 5 = 1/3 + 1/6

= (1/6) * (2+1) = (1/6) * 3 = 1/2.

=> 1/3 + 1/31 + 1/35 + 1/37 + 1/47 + 1/53 + 1/61 < 1/2.

Ủng hộ mk nha mina^^

cac ban cho mk biet tai sao lai co phan so \(\frac{1}{30};\frac{1}{45}\)vay ???

Nhận xét:

\(\frac{1}{31}+\frac{1}{35}+\frac{1}{37}< \frac{1}{30}+\frac{1}{30}+\frac{1}{30}=\frac{1}{10}\)

\(\frac{1}{47}+\frac{1}{53}+\frac{1}{61}< \frac{1}{45}+\frac{1}{45}+\frac{1}{45}=\frac{1}{15}\)

\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{31}+\frac{1}{35}+\frac{1}{37}+\frac{1}{47}+\frac{1}{53}+\frac{1}{61}< \frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{10}+\frac{1}{15}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Vậy \(\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{31}+\frac{1}{35}+\frac{1}{37}+\frac{1}{47}+\frac{1}{53}+\frac{1}{61}< \frac{1}{2}\) (Đpcm)

\(\text{Công thức tổng quát: }\frac{1}{1+2+3+...+n}=\frac{2}{\left(n+1\right).n}\)

bạn thay vào òi làm tiếp ,phần tiếp theo dễ thui

\(\text{A = }\frac{\text{-1}}{\text{2011}}-\frac{\text{3}}{\text{11}^2}-\frac{\text{5}}{\text{11}^2.\text{11}}-\frac{\text{7}}{\text{11}^2.\text{11}^2}=\text{ }\frac{\text{-1}}{\text{2011}}-\frac{\text{1}}{\text{11}^2}.\left(3-\frac{\text{5}}{\text{11}}-\frac{\text{7}}{\text{11}^2}\right)\)

\(\text{B = }\frac{\text{-1}}{\text{2011}}-\frac{7}{\text{11}^2}-\frac{5}{\text{11}^2.\text{11}}-\frac{3}{\text{11}^2.\text{11}^2}=\frac{\text{-1}}{\text{2011}}-\frac{\text{1}}{\text{11}^2}.\left(7-\frac{5}{\text{11}}-\frac{3}{\text{11}^2}\right)\)

\(\text{Vì }3-\frac{\text{5}}{\text{11}}-\frac{\text{7}}{\text{11}^2}< 7-\frac{5}{\text{11}}-\frac{3}{\text{11}^2}\)

\(\Rightarrow\frac{\text{-1}}{\text{2011}}-\frac{\text{1}}{\text{11}^2}.\left(3-\frac{\text{5}}{\text{11}}-\frac{\text{7}}{\text{11}^2}\right)>\frac{\text{-1}}{\text{2011}}-\frac{\text{1}}{\text{11}^2}.\left(7-\frac{5}{\text{11}}-\frac{3}{\text{11}^2}\right)\)

=> A > B

Vậy A > B

\(S=\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{4^2}+\frac{1}{6^2}+.......+\frac{1}{100^2}<\frac{1}{2}\)

\(S=\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{4^2}+\frac{1}{6^2}+........+\frac{1}{100^2}\)<\(\frac{1}{0.2}+\frac{1}{2.4}+\frac{1}{4.6}+.......+\frac{1}{98.100}\)

\(S=\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{100}=\frac{49}{100}<\frac{50}{100}=\frac{49}{100}<\frac{1}{2}\)

Vậy \(\frac{49}{100}<\frac{1}{2}\)

Ta có 1/2²<1/2*3

         1/4²<1/3*4

         . . .

         1/100²<1/99*100

=> S<1/2*3+1/3*4+...+1/99*100

=> S<1/2-1/3+1/3-1/4+...+1/99-1/100

=>S<1/2-1/100

=>S<49/100

Mà 49/100<1/2

=>S<1/2

               S = 1/2^2 + 1/4^2 + 1/6^2 + ... + 1/100^2 

suy ra:   4*S =    1   + 1/2^2 + 1/3^2 + ... + 1/50^2

có: 1/2^2 = 1/2*2 < 1/1*2

     1/3^2 = 1/3*3 < 1/2*3 

      1/50^2 = 1/50*50 <1/49*50

1+ 1/2^2 + 1/3^2 + ... + 1/50^2 < 1 + 1/1*2 + 1/2*3 + ... +1/49*50

                 4*S< 1 + 1 - 1/2 + 1/2 - 1/3 + ... + 1/49 - 1/50

                  4*S < 2 - 1/50 = 99/50

                S < 99/50 : 4 = 99/50 * 1/4 = 99/200 < 100/200 = 1/2

                                            vậy S < 1/2 (đpcm)

nhom lai 

ta có \(\frac{1}{41}+\frac{1}{42}+...+\frac{1}{80}< \frac{1}{80}+\frac{1}{80}+..+\frac{1}{80}\)

ta có vế phải có 40 số , vế trái cũng có 40 số

VT=\(40\cdot\frac{1}{80}=\frac{40}{80}=\frac{1}{2}\)

do đó VT<1/2