Ta có :
\(\frac{A}{B}=\frac{\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+\frac{1}{4^2}+......+\frac{1}{100^2}}{\frac{1}{4^2}+\frac{1}{6^2}+\frac{1}{8^2}+......\frac{1}{200^2}}=\frac{4\left(\frac{1}{4^2}+\frac{1}{6^2}+\frac{1}{8^2}+...+\frac{1}{200^2}\right)}{\frac{1}{4^2}+\frac{1}{6^2}+\frac{1}{8^2}+...+\frac{1}{200^2}}=4\)
Vậy \(\frac{A}{B}=4\)