Nhận thấy: \(VT\ge0\)nên để pt có nghiệm thì \(VP\ge0\)\(\Rightarrow\)\(2x-\frac{3}{4}\ge0\)\(\Rightarrow\)\(x\ge\frac{3}{8}\)
Ta có: \(\left||x-\frac{1}{2}|.|2x-\frac{3}{4}|\right|=2x-\frac{3}{4}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\left|x-\frac{1}{2}\right|.\left|2x-\frac{3}{4}\right|=2x-\frac{3}{4}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\left|x-\frac{1}{2}\right|.\left(2x-\frac{3}{4}\right)=2x-\frac{3}{4}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\left|x-\frac{1}{2}\right|\left(2x-\frac{3}{4}\right)-\left(2x-\frac{3}{4}\right)=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\left(2x-\frac{3}{4}\right)\left(\left|x-\frac{1}{2}\right|-1\right)=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\orbr{\begin{cases}2x-\frac{3}{4}=0\\\left|x-\frac{1}{2}\right|-1=0\end{cases}}\)
TH1: \(2x-\frac{3}{4}=0\) \(\Leftrightarrow\)\(x=\frac{3}{8}\) (thỏa mãn)
TH2: \(\left|x-\frac{1}{2}\right|-1=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\left|x-\frac{1}{2}\right|=1\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\orbr{\begin{cases}x-\frac{1}{2}=1\\x-\frac{1}{2}=-1\end{cases}}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\orbr{\begin{cases}x=\frac{3}{2}\left(TM\right)\\x=-\frac{1}{2}\left(KTM\right)\end{cases}}\)
Vậy \(\orbr{\begin{cases}x=\frac{3}{8}\\x=\frac{3}{2}\end{cases}}\)
