Bài làm:
Ta có: \(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=0\)
=> \(\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)^2=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ca}\right)=0\) (1)
Mà \(\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ca}\), cách CM như sau:
\(\left(\frac{1}{a}-\frac{1}{b}\right)^2\ge0\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}\ge\frac{2}{ab}\)
Tương tự: \(\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{2}{bc}\) ; \(\frac{1}{c^2}+\frac{1}{a^2}\ge\frac{2}{ca}\)
Cộng vế 3 BĐT trên lại ta sẽ được: \(\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ca}\)
Thay vào (1) ta được:
\(0=\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ca}\right)\ge3\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ca}\right)\)
=> \(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ca}\le0\)
Dấu "=" xảy ra khi: \(a=b=c\)