Vì \(\left(x-\frac{1}{5}\right)^{2004},\left(y+0,4\right)^{100},\left(z-3\right)^{678}\ge0\forall x,y,z\)
\(\left(x-\frac{1}{5}\right)^{2004}+\left(y+0,4\right)^{100}+\left(z-3\right)^{678}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left\{{}\begin{matrix}\left(x-\frac{1}{5}\right)^{2004}=0\\\left(y+0,4\right)^{100}=0\\\left(z-3\right)^{678}=0\end{matrix}\right.\)\(\Leftrightarrow\left\{{}\begin{matrix}x-\frac{1}{5}=0\\y+0,4=0\\z-3=0\end{matrix}\right.\)\(\Leftrightarrow\left\{{}\begin{matrix}x=\frac{1}{5}\\x=-0,4=-\frac{2}{5}\\z=3\end{matrix}\right.\)
Vậy \(\left(x,y,z\right)\in\left\{\left(\frac{1}{5};-\frac{2}{5};3\right)\right\}\)
(x-\(\frac{1}{5}\))2004+(y+0,4)100+(z-3)678=0
⇒\(\left\{{}\begin{matrix}x-\frac{1}{5}=0\\y+0,4=0\\z-3=0\end{matrix}\right.\)
⇒\(\left\{{}\begin{matrix}x=\frac{1}{5}\\y=-0,4\\z=3\end{matrix}\right.\)
Vậy...
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