A=\(\dfrac{1}{1\cdot2\cdot3}+\dfrac{1}{2\cdot3\cdot4}+...+\dfrac{1}{2014\cdot2015\cdot2016}=\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot\left(\dfrac{1}{1\cdot2}-\dfrac{1}{2\cdot3}+\dfrac{1}{2\cdot3}-\dfrac{1}{3\cdot4}+...+\dfrac{1}{2014\cdot2015}-\dfrac{1}{2015\cdot2016}\right)=\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot\left(\dfrac{1}{2}-\dfrac{1}{2015}\cdot\dfrac{1}{2016}\right)=\dfrac{1}{4}-\dfrac{1}{2\cdot2015\cdot2016}< \dfrac{1}{4}\)
Vậy A<\(\dfrac{1}{4}\)
---bé hơn hoặc bằng tức là chỉ cần xảy ra 1 khả năng cũng thõa mãn nhé---