Ta có: \(\dfrac{1}{3}x-\dfrac{5}{6}=0\)
\(\Rightarrow\dfrac{1}{3}x=\dfrac{5}{6}\)
\(\Rightarrow x=\dfrac{5}{6}:\dfrac{1}{3}=2,5\)
Vậy x= 2,5 là ngiệm của đa thức \(\dfrac{1}{3}x-\dfrac{5}{6}\)
\(\dfrac{1}{3x}\) hay \(\dfrac{1}{3}x\)?
Ta có :
\(\dfrac{1}{3}.x-\dfrac{5}{6}=0\\\Rightarrow\dfrac{1}{3}.x=0-\dfrac{5}{6}=\dfrac{1}{6}\\ \Rightarrow x=\dfrac{1}{6}:\dfrac{1}{3}\\ \Rightarrow x=\dfrac{2}{3}\)
Ta có: \(\dfrac{1}{3}x-\dfrac{5}{6}=0\)
\(\dfrac{1}{3}x=0+\dfrac{5}{6}=\dfrac{5}{6}\)
\(x=\dfrac{5}{6}:\dfrac{1}{3}\)
\(x=\dfrac{5}{2}\)
Vậy nghiệm của đa thức \(\dfrac{1}{3}x-\dfrac{5}{6}\)là \(\dfrac{5}{2}\)