\(\dfrac{1}{2}\) của \(\dfrac{1}{2}\) ta có: \(\dfrac{1}{2}.\dfrac{1}{2}=\dfrac{1}{4}\)
\(\dfrac{1}{4}\) chia cho \(\dfrac{1}{2}\) ta có:
\(\dfrac{1}{4}:\dfrac{1}{2}=\dfrac{1}{4}.\dfrac{2}{1}=\dfrac{1}{2}\)
Vậy bạn An nói đúng.
\(\dfrac{1}{2}\) của \(\dfrac{1}{2}\) ta có: \(\dfrac{1}{2}.\dfrac{1}{2}=\dfrac{1}{4}\)
\(\dfrac{1}{4}\) chia chia cho \(\dfrac{1}{2}\), ta có:
\(\dfrac{1}{4}:\dfrac{1}{2}=\dfrac{1}{4}.\dfrac{2}{1}=\dfrac{1}{2}\)
Vậy bạn An đã nói đúng.