Hmm trong đề làm gì có z vậy bạn ?????

\(\Leftrightarrow\left(\dfrac{1}{1+x^2}-\dfrac{1}{1+xy}\right)+\left(\dfrac{1}{1+y^2}-\dfrac{1}{1+xy}\right)\ge0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{1+xy-\left(1+x^2\right)}{\left(1+x^2\right)\left(1+xy\right)}+\dfrac{1+xy-\left(1+y^2\right)}{\left(1+y^2\right)\left(1+xy\right)}\ge0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{-x\left(x-y\right)\left(1+y^2\right)}{\left(1+x^2\right)\left(1+y^2\right)\left(1+xy\right)}+\dfrac{y\left(x-y\right)\left(1+x^2\right)}{\left(1+y^2\right)\left(1+x^2\right)\left(1+xy\right)}\ge0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\left(x-y\right)\left(-x+y-xy^2+x^2y\right)\ge0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\left(x-y\right)^2\left(xy-1\right)\ge0\left(\forall x;y\ge0\right)\)

Vậy \(\dfrac{1}{1+x^2}+\dfrac{1}{1+y^2}\ge\dfrac{2}{1+xy}\)

Ta có: \(\dfrac{1}{1+x^2}+\dfrac{1}{1+y^2}\ge\dfrac{2}{1+xy}\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\left(\dfrac{1}{1+x^2}-\dfrac{1}{1+y^2}\right)+\left(\dfrac{1}{1+y^2}-\dfrac{1}{xy}\right)\ge0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{xy-x^2}{\left(1+x^2\right)\left(1+xy\right)}+\dfrac{xy-y^2}{\left(1+y^2\right)\left(1+xy\right)}\ge0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{x\left(y-x\right)}{\left(1+x^2\right)\left(1+xy\right)}+\dfrac{y\left(x-y\right)}{\left(1+y^2\right)\left(1+xy\right)}\ge0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{\left(y-x\right)^2\left(xy-1\right)}{\left(1+x^2\right)\left(1+y^2\right)\left(1+xy\right)}\ge0\)

BĐT cuối đúng vì x.y > 0 => đpcm

z đâu ra???

2.

\(4n^3+n+3=4n^3+2n^2+2n-2n^2-n-1+4=2n\left(2n^2+n+1\right)-\left(2n^2+n+1\right)+4\)-Để \(\left(4n^3+n+3\right)⋮\left(2n^2+n+1\right)\) thì \(4⋮\left(2n^2+n+1\right)\)

\(\Leftrightarrow2n^2+n+1\in\left\{1;-1;2;-2;4;-4\right\}\) (do n là số nguyên)

*\(2n^2+n+1=1\Leftrightarrow n\left(2n+1\right)=0\Leftrightarrow n=0\) (loại) hay \(n=\dfrac{-1}{2}\) (loại)

*\(2n^2+n+1=-1\Leftrightarrow2n^2+n+2=0\) (phương trình vô nghiệm)

\(2n^2+n+1=2\Leftrightarrow2n^2+n-1=0\Leftrightarrow n^2+n+n^2-1=0\Leftrightarrow n\left(n+1\right)+\left(n+1\right)\left(n-1\right)=0\Leftrightarrow\left(n+1\right)\left(2n-1\right)=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow n=-1\) (loại) hay \(n=\dfrac{1}{2}\) (loại)

\(2n^2+n+1=-2\Leftrightarrow2n^2+n+3=0\) (phương trình vô nghiệm)

\(2n^2+n+1=4\Leftrightarrow2n^2+n-3=0\Leftrightarrow2n^2-2n+3n-3=0\Leftrightarrow2n\left(n-1\right)+3\left(n-1\right)=0\Leftrightarrow\left(n-1\right)\left(2n+3\right)=0\)\(\Leftrightarrow n=1\left(nhận\right)\) hay \(n=\dfrac{-3}{2}\left(loại\right)\)

-Vậy \(n=1\)

1. \(x^2+y^2=z^2\)

\(\Rightarrow x^2+y^2-z^2=0\)

\(\Rightarrow\left(x-z\right)\left(x+z\right)+y^2=0\)

-TH1: y lẻ \(\Rightarrow x-z;x+z\) đều lẻ.

\(x+3z-y=x+z-y+2x\) chia hết cho 2. \(\Rightarrow\)Hợp số.

-TH2: y chẵn \(\Rightarrow\)1 trong hai biểu thức \(x-z;x+z\) chia hết cho 2.

*Xét \(\left(x-z\right)⋮2\):

\(x+3z-y=x-z+4z-y\) chia hết cho 2. \(\Rightarrow\)Hợp số.

*Xét \(\left(x+z\right)⋮2\):

\(x+3z-y=x+z+2z-y\) chia hết cho 2 \(\Rightarrow\)Hợp số.

Lời giải:

Ta có: \(xy+yz+xz=3xyz\Rightarrow \frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{z}=3\)

Mà theo BĐT Cauchy-Schwarz: \(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{z}\geq \frac{9}{x+y+z}\)

Do đó: \(3\geq \frac{9}{x+y+z}\Rightarrow x+y+z\geq 3\)

-------

Ta có: \(\text{VT}=x-\frac{xz}{x^2+z}+y-\frac{xy}{y^2+x}+z-\frac{yz}{z^2+y}\)

\(=(x+y+z)-\left(\frac{xy}{y^2+x}+\frac{yz}{z^2+y}+\frac{xz}{x^2+z}\right)\)

\(\geq x+y+z-\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{xy}{\sqrt{xy^2}}+\frac{yz}{\sqrt{z^2y}}+\frac{xz}{\sqrt{x^2z}}\right)\) (AM-GM)

\(=x+y+z-\frac{1}{2}(\sqrt{x}+\sqrt{y}+\sqrt{z})\)

Tiếp tục AM-GM: \(\sqrt{x}+\sqrt{y}+\sqrt{z}\leq \frac{x+1}{2}+\frac{y+1}{2}+\frac{z+1}{2}=\frac{x+y+z+3}{2}\)

Suy ra:

\(\text{VT}\geq x+y+z-\frac{1}{2}.\frac{x+y+z+3}{2}=\frac{3}{4}(x+y+z)-\frac{3}{4}\)

\(\geq \frac{9}{4}-\frac{3}{4}=\frac{3}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{z}\right)\)

Ta có đpcm

Dấu bằng xảy ra khi $x=y=z=1$

Thay $x=\sqrt{\frac{1}{2,5}}; y=z=\sqrt{\frac{1}{0,25}}$ ta thấy đề sai bạn nhé!

Lời giải:
Từ đkđb suy ra:
$x-y=\frac{1}{z}-\frac{1}{y}=\frac{y-z}{yz}$

$y-z=\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{z}=\frac{z-x}{xz}$

$z-x=\frac{1}{y}-\frac{1}{x}=\frac{x-y}{xy}$

$\Rightarrow (x-y)(y-z)(z-x)=\frac{(y-z)(z-x)(x-y)}{(xyz)^2}$

$\Leftrightarrow (x-y)(y-z)(z-x)(1-\frac{1}{x^2y^2z^2})=0$

$\Rightarrow (x-y)(y-z)(z-x)=0$ hoặc $1-\frac{1}{x^2y^2z^2}=1$

$\Rightarrow (x-y)(y-z)(z-x)=0$ hoặc $x^2y^2z^2=1$
Nếu $(x-y)(y-z)(z-x)=0$

$\Rightarrow x=y$ hoặc $y=z$ hoặc $z=x$

Không mất tquat giả sử $x=y$. Khi đó: $\frac{1}{y}=\frac{1}{z}$

$\Rightarrow y=z$

$\Rightarrow x=y=z$. Tương tự khi xét $y=z$ hoặc $z=x$ thì ta cũng thu được $x=y=z$
Vậy $x=y=z$ hoặc $x^2y^2z^2=1$