M = \(\frac{9}{40}\)- \(\frac{11}{60}\)+\(\frac{13}{84}\)- \(\frac{15}{112}\)

M = 378/1680 - 308/1680+ 260/1680- 225/1680

M = 105/1680

\(\frac{9}{40}-\frac{11}{60}+\frac{13}{84}-\frac{15}{112}=\frac{27}{120}-\frac{22}{120}+\frac{13}{84}-\frac{15}{112}=\frac{1}{24}+\frac{13}{84}-\frac{15}{112}=\frac{7}{168}+\frac{26}{168}-\frac{15}{112}=\frac{11}{56}-\frac{15}{112}=\frac{22}{112}-\frac{15}{112}=\frac{7}{112}=\frac{1}{16}\)

Cách thuân tiện nè:

M = ( 9/40 - 11/60) + 13/84-15/112

M=(  27/120-22/120) + 13/84 - 15/112

M = 1/24 + 13/84 - 15/112

M= ( 1/24 + 13/84) - 15/112

M = (7/168 + 26/168) - 15/112

M = 33/168 - 15/112 

M = 11/56 - 15/112

M = 22/112 - 15/112

M = 7/112

M=9/40-11/60+13/84-15/112=1/16

nhớ k cho mình nha

Đây là toán lớp 1 à?

\(\frac{9}{40}\) - \(\frac{11}{60}\) + \(\frac{13}{84}\) - \(\frac{15}{112}\)

= \(\frac{1}{24}\) + \(\frac{13}{84}\) - \(\frac{15}{112}\)

= \(\frac{11}{56}\) - \(\frac{15}{112}\)

= \(\frac{1}{16}\)

cam on ban nhung tai sao co 1/24

bn ơi hình như sai đề rồi , số cuối cùng là 17/72

Ta có: \(M=\dfrac{9}{40}-\dfrac{11}{60}+\dfrac{13}{84}-\dfrac{15}{112}\)

\(=\dfrac{378}{1680}-\dfrac{308}{1680}+\dfrac{260}{1680}-\dfrac{225}{1680}\)

\(=\dfrac{105}{1680}=\dfrac{1}{16}\)