Chỗ giả thiết vế phải có đúng ko vậy

Áp dụng bất đẳng thức Cauchy-Schwarz:

\(VT=\dfrac{1}{ab}+\dfrac{1}{bc}+\dfrac{1}{ac}+\dfrac{1}{a^2+b^2+c^2}\ge\dfrac{\left(1+1+1\right)^2}{ab+bc+ac}+\dfrac{1}{a^2+b^2+c^2}\)

\(=\dfrac{9}{ab+bc+ac}+\dfrac{1}{a^2+b^2+c^2}\)

\(=\dfrac{1}{ab+bc+ac}+\dfrac{1}{ab+bc+ac}+\dfrac{7}{ab+bc+ac}+\dfrac{1}{a^2+b^2+c^2}\)

\(\ge\dfrac{\left(1+1+1\right)^2}{ab+bc+ac+ab+bc+ac+a^2+b^2+c^2}+\dfrac{7}{ab+bc+ac}\)

\(=\dfrac{9}{\left(a+b+c\right)^2}+\dfrac{7}{ab+bc+ac}\)

Áp dụng bất đẳng thức AM-GM cho 2 số dương:

\(ab+bc+ac\le\dfrac{\left(a+b+c\right)^2}{3}=\dfrac{1^2}{3}=\dfrac{1}{3}\)

Ta có: \(\dfrac{9}{\left(a+b+c\right)^2}+\dfrac{7}{ab+bc+ac}\ge\dfrac{9}{\left(a+b+c\right)^2}+\dfrac{7}{\dfrac{1}{3}}=9+21=30\)

Áp dụng BĐT Cauchy-Schwarz ta có

BT\(\ge\)\(\frac{\left(1+1+1\right)^2}{ab+bc+ac}+\frac{1}{a^2+b^2+c^2}=\frac{9}{ab+bc+ac}+\frac{1}{a^2+b^2+c^2}\)

\(=\frac{1}{ab+bc+ac}+\frac{1}{ab+bc+ac}+\frac{1}{a^2+b^2+c^2}+\frac{7}{ab+bc+ac}\)

\(\ge\frac{\left(1+1+1\right)^2}{a^2+b^2+c^2+2ab+2bc+2ac}+\frac{7}{ab+bc+ac}\)\(=1+\frac{7}{ab+bc+ac}\)

Ta lại có ab+bc+ac =< (a+b+c)^2/3 =3

\(\Rightarrow BT\ge1+\frac{7}{3}=\frac{10}{3}\)

Vậy GTNN là \(\frac{10}{3}\)khi a=b=c=1

Cô-si Schwarzt dạng Engel là đc

\(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}+\dfrac{1}{c}=0\Rightarrow\dfrac{ab+bc+ca}{abc}=0\Rightarrow ab+bc+ca=0\)

T = a² + b² + c² = (a + b+ c)² - 2(ab + bc + ca) = 1 - 0 = 1

từ giả thiết ,ta có:\(\left(\sqrt{a}+\sqrt{b}+\sqrt{c}\right)^2=4\)\(\Leftrightarrow a+b+c+2\left(\sqrt{ab}+\sqrt{bc}+\sqrt{ca}\right)=4\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\sqrt{ab}+\sqrt{bc}+\sqrt{ac}=1\)---> thay 1= vào ...

\(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}+\dfrac{1}{c}=2\)

\(\Rightarrow\left(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}+\dfrac{1}{c}\right)^2=4\)

\(\Rightarrow\dfrac{1}{a^2}+\dfrac{1}{b^2}+\dfrac{1}{c^2}+\dfrac{2}{ab}+\dfrac{2}{bc}+\dfrac{2}{ca}=4\)

\(\Rightarrow2+\dfrac{2}{ab}+\dfrac{2}{bc}+\dfrac{2}{ca}=4\)

\(\Rightarrow\dfrac{2}{ab}+\dfrac{2}{bc}+\dfrac{2}{ca}=2\)

\(\Rightarrow\dfrac{1}{ab}+\dfrac{1}{bc}+\dfrac{1}{ca}=1\)

\(\Rightarrow\dfrac{c+a+b}{abc}=1\)

\(\Rightarrow a+b+c=abc\) 

Ta có: \(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}+\dfrac{1}{c}=2\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\left(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}+\dfrac{1}{c}\right)^2=4\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{1}{a^2}+\dfrac{1}{b^2}+\dfrac{1}{c^2}+\dfrac{2}{ab}+\dfrac{2}{bc}+\dfrac{2}{ac}=4\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{1}{a^2}+\dfrac{1}{b^2}+\dfrac{1}{c^2}+\dfrac{2c+2a+2b}{abc}=4\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{1}{a^2}+\dfrac{1}{b^2}+\dfrac{1}{c^2}+\dfrac{2\left(a+b+c\right)}{abc}=4\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{1}{a^2}+\dfrac{1}{b^2}+\dfrac{1}{c^2}+2=4\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{1}{a^2}+\dfrac{1}{b^2}+\dfrac{1}{c^2}=2\)

Vậy...

Lời giải:
\(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=\frac{1}{a+b+c}\)

\(\Leftrightarrow \left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{c}-\frac{1}{a+b+c}\right)=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow \frac{a+b}{ab}+\frac{a+b}{c(a+b+c)}=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow (a+b).\frac{ab+c(a+b+c)}{abc(a+b+c)}=0\Leftrightarrow (a+b).\frac{(c+a)(c+b)}{abc(a+b+c)}=0\)

\(\Rightarrow (a+b)(c+a)(c+b)=0\)

Do đó:

\(A=(a^3+b^3)(b^3+c^3)(c^3+a^3)\)

\(=(a+b)(a^2-ab+b^2)(b+c)(b^2-bc+c^2)(c+a)(c^2-ca+a^2)\)

\(=(a+b)(c+a)(c+b)[(a^2-ab+b^2)(b^2-bc+c^2)(c^2-ca+a^2)]=0\)