Đặt \(\left\{{}\begin{matrix}\dfrac{a}{b^2}=x\\\dfrac{b}{c^2}=y\\\dfrac{c}{a^2}=z\end{matrix}\right.\Rightarrow xyz=1;x+y+z=\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\)

Ta có \(x+y+z=\dfrac{1}{x}+\dfrac{1}{y}+\dfrac{1}{z}\)

\(\Leftrightarrow x+y+z=xy+yz+zx\)

\(\Leftrightarrow xyz-1+x+y+z-xy-yz-zx=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\left(x-1\right)\left(y-1\right)\left(z-1\right)=0\)

​\(\Leftrightarrow\left(x-1\right)\left(y-1\right)\left(z-1\right)=0\)​

\(\Leftrightarrow\left[{}\begin{matrix}x=1\\y=1\\z=1\end{matrix}\right.\Leftrightarrow\left[{}\begin{matrix}\dfrac{a}{b^2}=1\\\dfrac{b}{c^2}=1\\\dfrac{c}{a^2}=1\end{matrix}\right.\Leftrightarrow\left[{}\begin{matrix}a=b^2\\b=c^2\\c=a^2\end{matrix}\right.\left(đpcm\right)\)

25 ban oi

Lời giải:

Đặt \(\left(\frac{a}{b^2}, \frac{b}{c^2}, \frac{c}{a^2}\right)=(x,y,z)\)

\(\Rightarrow xyz=\frac{abc}{a^2b^2c^2}=\frac{1}{abc}=1\)

Theo bài ra ta có: \(\frac{a}{b^2}+\frac{b}{c^2}+\frac{c}{a^2}=\frac{a^2}{c}+\frac{b^2}{a}+\frac{c^2}{b}\)

\(\Leftrightarrow x+y+z=\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{z}\)

\(\Leftrightarrow x+y+z=xy+yz+xz\)

\(\Leftrightarrow (xy-x-y+1)-1+z(x+y-1)=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow (xy-x-y+1)+z(x+y-1-xy)=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow (x-1)(y-1)-z(x-1)(y-1)=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow (x-1)(y-1)(1-z)=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow \frac{a-b^2}{b^2}.\frac{b-c^2}{c^2}.\frac{a^2-c}{a^2}=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow (a-b^2)(b-c^2)(c-a^2)=0\)

Do đó ta có đpcm.

\(\dfrac{1}{a^2}+\dfrac{1}{b^2}+\dfrac{1}{c^2}=\left(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}+\dfrac{1}{c}\right)^2-2.\left(\dfrac{1}{ab}+\dfrac{1}{bc}+\dfrac{1}{ca}\right)=\left(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}+\dfrac{1}{c}\right)^2-2.\dfrac{a+b+c}{abc}=\left(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}+\dfrac{1}{c}\right)^2-2.\dfrac{0}{abc}=\left(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}+\dfrac{1}{c}\right)^2\)

\(\dfrac{1}{c}=\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}\Leftrightarrow ab=bc+ac\Leftrightarrow2ab-2bc-2ac=0\\ \Leftrightarrow\sqrt{a^2+b^2+c^2}=\sqrt{a^2+b^2+c^2+2ab-2bc-2ac}\\ =\sqrt{\left(a+b-c\right)^2}=\left|a+b-c\right|\left(dpcm\right)\)

Câu 23:

https://olm.vn/hoi-dap/detail/1732532846797.html

Ta có: \(a=b+c\Rightarrow c=a-b\)

\(\sqrt{\dfrac{1}{a^2}+\dfrac{1}{b^2}+\dfrac{1}{c^2}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{b^2c^2+a^2c^2+a^2b^2}{a^2b^2c^2}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{b^2\left(a-b\right)^2+a^2\left(a-b\right)^2+a^2b^2}{a^2b^2c^2}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{b^4+a^2b^2-2ab^3+a^4+a^2b^2-2a^3b+a^2b^2}{a^2b^2c^2}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{\left(a^2+b^2\right)^2-2ab\left(a^2+b^2\right)+a^2b^2}{a^2b^2c^2}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{\left(a^2+b^2-ab\right)^2}{a^2b^2c^2}}=\left|\dfrac{a^2+b^2-ab}{abc}\right|\)

=> Là một số hữu tỉ do a,b,c là số hữu tỉ

Hằng đẳng thức:

\(\left(x-y-z\right)^2=x^2+y^2+z^2+2\left(yz-xy-zx\right)=x^2+y^2+z^2-2\left(xy+xz-yz\right)\)

\(\Rightarrow x^2+y^2+z^2=\left(x-y-z\right)^2+2\left(xy+xz-yz\right)\)

Giờ thay \(x=\dfrac{1}{a}\) ; \(y=\dfrac{1}{b}\); \(z=\dfrac{1}{c}\) là ra cái người ta làm

Thôi câu đó mình làm được rồi, các bạn giúp mình câu này nha

Cho \(a>b\ge0\). CMR: \(\dfrac{a^4+b^4}{a^4-b^4}-\dfrac{ab}{a^2-b^2}+\dfrac{a+b}{2\left(a-b\right)}\ge\dfrac{3}{2}\)

\(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}+\dfrac{1}{c}=1\\ \to ab+bc+ca=abc=1\)

Ta có \(A=\left(a^2+ab+bc+ca\right)\left(b^2+ab+bc+ca\right)\left(c^2+ab+bc+ca\right)\)

\(\to A=\left(a+b\right)\left(a+c\right)\left(a+b\right)\left(b+c\right)\left(a+c\right)\left(b+c\right)\)

\(\to A=\left[\left(a+b\right)\left(b+c\right)\left(c+a\right)\right]^2\)

Vì $a,b,c\in \mathbb{Q}\to A\in \mathbb{Q}$