M=1/16 pn nha

M=1/16 tin mình đi

\(M=\frac{9}{40}-\frac{11}{60}+\frac{13}{84}-\frac{15}{112}\)      

\(M=\left(\frac{9}{40}-\frac{11}{60}\right)+\left(\frac{13}{84}-\frac{15}{112}\right)\)   

\(M=\frac{1}{24}+\frac{1}{48}\)    

\(M=\frac{1}{16}\)

\(M=\frac{1}{16}\)

M= 9/40-11/60+13/84-15/112

M=378/1680-308/1680+260/1680-225/1680

M=\(\frac{378-308+260-225}{1680}\)

M=\(\frac{105}{1680}\)

M= \(\frac{1}{16}\)

\(M=\frac{1}{16}=0,0625\)

Dễ

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17/112

1/16 nha bn

1/16 nha bạn

\(\frac{1}{16}\)

M=9/40-11/60+13/84-15/112=1/16

nhớ k cho mình nha

Đây là toán lớp 1 à?

\(\frac{9}{40}\) - \(\frac{11}{60}\) + \(\frac{13}{84}\) - \(\frac{15}{112}\)

= \(\frac{1}{24}\) + \(\frac{13}{84}\) - \(\frac{15}{112}\)

= \(\frac{11}{56}\) - \(\frac{15}{112}\)

= \(\frac{1}{16}\)

cam on ban nhung tai sao co 1/24

Ta có: \(M=\dfrac{9}{40}-\dfrac{11}{60}+\dfrac{13}{84}-\dfrac{15}{112}\)

\(=\dfrac{378}{1680}-\dfrac{308}{1680}+\dfrac{260}{1680}-\dfrac{225}{1680}\)

\(=\dfrac{105}{1680}=\dfrac{1}{16}\)