Ta sẽ chứng minh \(P=\frac{x}{y+z}+\frac{y}{z+x}+\frac{z}{x+y}\ge\frac{3}{2}\left(1\right)\)
Thật vậy (1)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(\frac{x}{y+z}-\frac{1}{2}\right)+\left(\frac{y}{z+x}-\frac{1}{2}\right)+\left(\frac{z}{x+y}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\ge0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(\frac{\left(x-y\right)+\left(x-z\right)}{2\left(y+z\right)}\right)+\left(\frac{\left(y-z\right)+\left(y-x\right)}{2\left(z+x\right)}\right)+\left(\frac{\left(z-x\right)+\left(z-y\right)}{2\left(x+y\right)}\right)\ge0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(x-y\right)^2\frac{1}{2\left(y+z\right)\left(z+x\right)}+\left(y-z\right)^2\frac{1}{2\left(z+x\right)\left(x+y\right)}+\left(z-x\right)^2\frac{1}{2\left(x+y\right)\left(y+z\right)}\ge0\)(luôn đúng)
=>đpcm
Bạn giải thích giùm mình bước cuối mình ko hủi lém cám ơn
