Do \(2q^2\) luôn chẵn và 1 luôn lẻ \(\Rightarrow p^2\) lẻ \(\Rightarrow p\) lẻ
\(\Rightarrow p^2\equiv1\left(mod4\right)\)
\(\Rightarrow2q^2\equiv0\left(mod4\right)\)
\(\Rightarrow q^2⋮2\Rightarrow q⋮2\Rightarrow q=2\)
\(\Rightarrow p^2=9\Rightarrow p=3\)
Vậy \(\left(p;q\right)=\left(3;2\right)\)