\(n\times n!=1\times2\times3\times...\times\left(n-1\right)\times n\times n\)
\(=1\times2\times3\times...\times\left(n-1\right)\times n^2\)
\(=\left[1\times2\times3\times...\times\left(n-1\right)\right]\times n^2\)
\(=\left(n-1\right)!\times n^2\)
Vậy \(n\times n!=\left(n-1\right)!\times n^2\)