Ta có ; \(\frac{a}{b-c}+\frac{b}{c-a}+\frac{c}{a-b}=0\)(1)
Nhân cả hai vế của (1) với \(\frac{1}{b-c}+\frac{1}{c-a}+\frac{1}{a-b}\)được :
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(\frac{a}{b-c}+\frac{b}{c-a}+\frac{c}{a-b}\right)\left(\frac{1}{b-c}+\frac{1}{c-a}+\frac{1}{a-b}\right)=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{a}{\left(b-c\right)^2}+\frac{a}{\left(b-c\right)\left(c-a\right)}+\frac{a}{\left(a-b\right)\left(b-c\right)}+\frac{b}{\left(c-a\right)\left(b-c\right)}+\frac{b}{\left(c-a\right)^2}+\frac{b}{\left(c-a\right)\left(a-b\right)}+\frac{c}{\left(a-b\right)\left(b-c\right)}+\frac{c}{\left(a-b\right)\left(c-a\right)}+\frac{c}{\left(a-b\right)^2}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left[\frac{a}{\left(b-c\right)^2}+\frac{b}{\left(c-a\right)^2}+\frac{c}{\left(a-b\right)^2}\right]+\frac{a+b}{\left(b-c\right)\left(c-a\right)}+\frac{b+c}{\left(a-b\right)\left(c-a\right)}+\frac{c+a}{\left(a-b\right)\left(b-c\right)}=0\)\(\Leftrightarrow\left[\frac{a}{\left(b-c\right)^2}+\frac{b}{\left(c-a\right)^2}+\frac{c}{\left(a-b\right)^2}\right]+\frac{a^2-b^2+b^2-c^2+c^2-a^2}{\left(a-b\right)\left(b-c\right)\left(c-a\right)}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{a}{\left(b-c\right)^2}+\frac{b}{\left(c-a\right)^2}+\frac{c}{\left(a-b\right)^2}=0\)
Vậy ta có điều phải chứng minh.
