Question

\(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}+\frac{z}{c}=1và\frac{a}{x}+\frac{b}{y}+\frac{c}{z}=0tính\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}+\frac{z^2}{c^2}\)

Answer 1

vì \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}+\frac{z}{c}=1=>\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}+\frac{z^2}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{xy}{ab}+\frac{yz}{bc}+\frac{xz}{cz}\right)=1\)

 ==>A=\(1-2\left(\frac{xy}{ab}+\frac{yz}{bc}+\frac{xz}{cz}\right)=1-\frac{2\left(cxy+ayz+bzx\right)}{xyz}\)(1)

mặt khác từ \(\frac{a}{x}+\frac{b}{y}+\frac{c}{z}=0\) ==> \(\frac{ayz+bzx+cxy}{xyz}=0=>ayz+cxy+bzx=0\) ( thay vào (1) ta có 

A=1-0=1