Ta có: \(\left(\sqrt{x+y}\right)^2=\left(\sqrt{x-z}+\sqrt{y-z}\right)^2\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(x+y=x+y-2z+2\sqrt{\left(x-z\right)\left(y-z\right)}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow2z=2\sqrt{\left(x-z\right)\left(y-z\right)}\)
Theo giả thiết, ta có:
theo giả thiết, ta có: \(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}-\frac{1}{z}=0\Rightarrow\frac{1}{z}-\frac{1}{x}=\frac{1}{y}\)\(\Rightarrow\frac{x-z}{zx}=\frac{1}{y}\Rightarrow x-z=\frac{zx}{y}\)
Tương tự, ta có: \(y-z=\frac{zy}{x}\)
Do đó: \(2\sqrt{\left(x-z\right)\left(y-z\right)}=2\sqrt{\frac{zx}{y}.\frac{zy}{x}}=2z\) (1)
ta có: \(\left(\sqrt{x+y}\right)^2=\left(\sqrt{x-z}+\sqrt{y-z}\right)^2\)
\(\Leftrightarrow2z=2\sqrt{\left(x-z\right)\left(y-z\right)}\)(2)
Thay (2) vào (1) ta thấy (2) luôn đúng
Suy ra ĐPCM
Vì \(x>0,y>0\Rightarrow\frac{1}{x}>0;\frac{1}{y}>0\)
mà \(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}-\frac{1}{z}=0\Rightarrow\frac{1}{z}=\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}\Rightarrow\frac{1}{z}>0\Rightarrow z>0\)
Ta có: \(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}-\frac{1}{z}=0\Leftrightarrow yz+zx-xy=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow-z^2=-z^2+yz+zx-xy=-\left(x-z\right)\left(y-z\right)\)
\(\Leftrightarrow z^2=\left(x-z\right)\left(y-z\right)>0\)
\(\Rightarrow z=\sqrt{\left(x-z\right)\left(y-z\right)}\left(z>0\right)\)
Lại có: \(x+y=x-z+y-z+2z\)
\(=\left(x-z\right)+\left(y-z\right)+2\sqrt{\left(x-z\right)\left(y-z\right)}=\left(\sqrt{x-z}+\sqrt{y-z}\right)^2\)
Suy ra \(\sqrt{x+y}=\sqrt{x-z}+\sqrt{y-z}\) (ĐPCM)