Đặt \(\dfrac{x-y}{z}=m,\dfrac{y-z}{x}=n,\dfrac{z-x}{y}=p\), ta có:
\(\left(m+n+p\right)\left(\dfrac{1}{m}+\dfrac{1}{n}+\dfrac{1}{p}\right)=3+\dfrac{n+p}{m}+\dfrac{p+m}{n}+\dfrac{m+n}{p}\)
Tính \(\dfrac{n+p}{m}\) theo x, y, z ta được:
\(\dfrac{n+p}{m}=\dfrac{z}{x-y}.\dfrac{y^2-yz+xz-x^2}{xy}=\dfrac{z}{xy}\left(-x-y+x\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{z}{xy}\left(-x-y-z+2z\right)=\dfrac{2x^2}{xy}\) vì \(\left(x+y+z\right)=0\)
Tương tự: \(\dfrac{m+p}{n}=\dfrac{2x^2}{yz}.\dfrac{m+n}{p}=\dfrac{2y^2}{xz}\)
Vậy \(\left(m+n+p\right)\left(\dfrac{1}{m}+\dfrac{1}{n}+\dfrac{1}{p}\right)=3+\dfrac{2\left(x^3+y^3+z^3\right)}{xyz}=3+\dfrac{2.3xyz}{xyz}=3+6=9\)
