\(\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)^2=\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+\frac{2}{ab}+\frac{2}{ac}+\frac{2}{bc}\)
\(=\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{ac}+\frac{1}{bc}\right)=\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{c+b+a}{abc}\right)\)
Mà a+b+c = 0 nên suy ra:
\(\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)^2=\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{0}{abc}\right)=\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\)
Ta có: (\(\frac{1}{a}\)+\(\frac{1}{b}\)+\(\frac{1}{c}\))\(^2\)= \(\frac{1}{a^2}\)+\(\frac{1}{b^2}\)+\(\frac{1}{c^2}\)+\(\frac{2}{abc}\)(\(\frac{a+b+c}{abc}\))
Mà
A+B+C= 0
nên: VT = VP (đpcm)