\(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=0\) <=> \(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}=-\frac{1}{c}\)
<=> \(\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}\right)^3=\left(-\frac{1}{c}\right)^3\)
<=> \(\frac{1}{a^3}+\frac{1}{b^3}+\frac{3}{a^2b}+\frac{3}{ab^2}=-\frac{1}{c^3}\)
<=> \(\frac{1}{a^3}+\frac{1}{b^3}+\frac{1}{c^3}=-\frac{3}{ab}\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}\right)\)
<=> \(\frac{1}{a^3}+\frac{1}{b^3}+\frac{1}{c^3}=\frac{3}{abc}\)
Khi đó, A = \(\frac{bc}{a^2}+\frac{ac}{b^2}+\frac{ab}{c^2}=abc\left(\frac{1}{a^3}+\frac{1}{b^3}+\frac{1}{c^3}\right)=abc\cdot\frac{3}{abc}=3\)
Xét: \(A=\frac{bc}{a^2}+\frac{ac}{b^2}+\frac{ab}{c^2}=abc\left(\frac{1}{a^3}+\frac{1}{b^3}+\frac{1}{c^3}\right)\)
Ta có đẳng thức sau: \(x^3+y^3+z^3=\left(x+y+z\right)\left(x^2+y^2+z^2-xy-yz-xz\right)+3xyz\)
(Đẳng thức này chứng minh rất dễ nha, chỉ cần bung hết ra là được)
Vậy ta thế \(x=\frac{1}{a},y=\frac{1}{b},z=\frac{1}{c}\)vào đẳng thức:
\(\frac{1}{a^3}+\frac{1}{b^3}+\frac{1}{c^3}=\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)\left(\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}-\frac{1}{ab}-\frac{1}{bc}-\frac{1}{ca}\right)+\frac{3}{abc}\)
\(=\frac{3}{abc}\)Vì \(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=0\)---> Thế cái này vào A:
\(\Rightarrow A=abc.\frac{3}{abc}=3\)
Xoooooooong !!!!! :)))