Đặt \(A=\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+\frac{1}{4^2}+...+\frac{1}{50^2}\)
\(\Rightarrow A< \frac{1}{1.2}+\frac{1}{2.3}+\frac{1}{3.4}+...+\frac{1}{49.50}\)
\(\Rightarrow A< 1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{49}-\frac{1}{50}\)
\(\Rightarrow A< 1-\frac{1}{50}\)
\(\Rightarrow A< \frac{49}{50}\)
Mà \(\frac{49}{50}< 1\)
\(\Rightarrow A< 1\)
Vậy A<1