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Giúp mk điPeter Jin

a)Ta có:A:B=\(\left(\frac{1}{4}.\frac{3}{6}.\frac{5}{8}....\frac{43}{46}.\frac{45}{48}\right):\left(\frac{2}{5}.\frac{4}{7}.\frac{6}{9}....\frac{44}{47}.\frac{46}{49}\right)=\frac{\left(1.3.5...45\right).\left(2.4.6...46\right)}{\left(4.6.8...48\right)\left(5.7.9...49\right)}=\frac{3.2}{47.48.49}

A:B thì phải nhân nghịch đảo chứ ?

Ta có : 

\(\frac{x+1}{49}+\frac{x+2}{48}+\frac{x+3}{47}+\frac{x+4}{46}+\frac{x+5}{45}=-5\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\left(\frac{x+1}{49}+1\right)+\left(\frac{x+2}{48}+1\right)+\left(\frac{x+3}{47}+1\right)+\left(\frac{x+4}{46}+1\right)+\left(\frac{x+5}{45}+1\right)=-5+5\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\frac{x+50}{49}+\frac{x+50}{48}+\frac{x+50}{47}+\frac{x+50}{46}+\frac{x+50}{45}=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\left(x+50\right)\left(\frac{1}{49}+\frac{1}{48}+\frac{1}{47}+\frac{1}{46}+\frac{1}{45}\right)=0\)

Vì \(\frac{1}{49}+\frac{1}{48}+\frac{1}{47}+\frac{1}{46}+\frac{1}{45}\ne0\)

Nên \(x+50=0\)

\(\Rightarrow\)\(x=-50\)

Vậy \(x=-50\)

Chúc bạn học tốt ~ 

\(\frac{x+1}{49}+1+\frac{x+2}{48}+1+\frac{x+3}{47}+1+\frac{x+4}{46}+1+\frac{x+5}{45}+1=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{x+50}{49}+\frac{x+50}{48}+...+\frac{x+50}{45}=0\)

\(\Leftrightarrow\left(x+50\right)\left(\frac{1}{49}+\frac{1}{48}+...+\frac{1}{45}\right)=0\)

Vì 1/49+1/48+...+1/45 khác 0

Nên x+50=0

do đó x=-50

1 

Ez lắm =)

Bài 1:

Với mọi gt \(x,y\in Q\) ta luôn có: 

\(x\le\left|x\right|\) và \(-x\le\left|x\right|\) 

\(y\le\left|y\right|\) và \(-y\le\left|y\right|\Rightarrow x+y\le\left|x\right|+\left|y\right|\) và \(-x-y\le\left|x\right|+\left|y\right|\)

Hay: \(x+y\ge-\left(\left|x\right|+\left|y\right|\right)\)

Do đó: \(-\left(\left|x\right|+\left|y\right|\right)\le x+y\le\left|x\right|+\left|y\right|\)

Vậy: \(\left|x+y\right|\le\left|x\right|+\left|y\right|\)

Dấu "=" xảy ra khi: \(xy\ge0\)

Bài 3: 

Ta có: \(\frac{x}{a}=\frac{y}{b}=\frac{z}{c}=\frac{x+y+z}{a+b+c}=x+y+z\) (vì a + b + c = 1)

Do đó: \(\left(x+y+z\right)^2=\frac{x^2}{a^2}=\frac{y^2}{b^2}=\frac{z^2}{c^2}=\frac{x^2+y^2+z^2}{a^2+b^2+c^2}=x^2+y^2+z^2\) (vì a² + b² + c² = 1)

Vậy: (x + y + z)² = x² + y² + z²

\(A=\frac{1}{2^2}.\left(1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+...+\frac{1}{50^2}\right)\)

TA có :\(\frac{1}{2^2}< \frac{1}{1.2};\frac{1}{3^2}< \frac{1}{2.3};...;\frac{1}{50^2}< \frac{1}{49.50}\)

=>\(\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+...+\frac{1}{50^2}< \frac{1}{1.2}+\frac{1}{2.3}+...+\frac{1}{49.50}\)

=\(1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{49}-\frac{1}{50}=1-\frac{1}{50}\)

=>\(\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+...+\frac{1}{50^2}< 1\Rightarrow1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+...+\frac{1}{50^2}< 1+1=2\)

\(A=\frac{1}{2^2}.\left(1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+...+\frac{1}{50^2}\right)< \frac{1}{2^2}.2=\frac{1}{2}\left(đpcm\right)\)